hrcs Posted December 7, 2006 Posted December 7, 2006 Could anyone help me find thelimit as x->0 of (1/x^2)-(cotx)^2 without the use of a calculator?I tried using L'Hospitals rule but the result is too messy to work with. Any help or thoughts would be appreciated.
gamehead200 Posted December 7, 2006 Posted December 7, 2006 Have you expanded it to:lim x-> 0(x^-2)-((cos(x))^2)/((sin(x))^2)Just a thought. Seems simpler this way.
LLXX Posted December 8, 2006 Posted December 8, 2006 (edited) Common denominator and trigonometric identities. Edited December 8, 2006 by LLXX
Innocent Devil Posted December 8, 2006 Posted December 8, 2006 try Lt x->0 (1- x^2.cot(x)^2)/x^2and apply L'Hospitals Rulewithing 2rd iteration u get Denominator as 2 and then u have to limit only the Nr.It lead to either Infinity or Zero
ripken204 Posted December 9, 2006 Posted December 9, 2006 well the 1/x^2 part is equal to 0the cot part is just insane without a calc tho. but it would be -.025
gamehead200 Posted December 9, 2006 Posted December 9, 2006 well the 1/x^2 part is equal to 0the cot part is just insane without a calc tho. but it would be -.025Why not just make it cos^2(x)/sin^2(x)?And the limit is equal to 2/3, actually. Just used my TI-89 to solve it.
allen2 Posted December 9, 2006 Posted December 9, 2006 Here is my solution:(1/x^2)-(cotx)^2= 1/x^2 - (cos(x)/sin(x))^2= 1/x^2- (cos(x)^2/sin(x)^2)= 1/x^2 - (1 -sin(x)^2)/sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 +sin(x)^2 =1=1/x^2 - (1/sin(x)^2 -1)= 1/x^2 - 1/sin(x)^2 +1= (sin(x)^2 -x^2)/x^2 sin(x)^2 +1with MacLaurin series for sin(x)= x-x^3/3! when x->0=( (x-x^3/3!)^2-x^2)/(x^2(x-x^3/3!)^2)+1=(x^2 -2x^4/3! +x^6/36 -x^2)/(x^2 (x(1-x^2/3!))^2) +1=( -x^4/3+x^6/36)/(x^2*x^2(1-x^2/3!)^2) +1=(x^4 (-1/3 +x^2/36))/(x^4 (1-x^2/6)^2) +1=(-1/3 +x^2/36)/(1-x^2/6)^2 +1And when x->0 this (-1/3 +x^2/36)/(1-x^2/6)^2 -> -1/3So Lim x->0 of (1/x^2)-(cotx)^2= -1/3+1=2/3
hrcs Posted December 10, 2006 Author Posted December 10, 2006 Here is my solution:(1/x^2)-(cotx)^2= 1/x^2 - (cos(x)/sin(x))^2= 1/x^2- (cos(x)^2/sin(x)^2)= 1/x^2 - (1 -sin(x)^2)/sin(x)^2 cos(x)^2 +sin(x)^2 =1=1/x^2 - (1/sin(x)^2 -1)= 1/x^2 - 1/sin(x)^2 +1= (sin(x)^2 -x^2)/x^2 sin(x)^2 +1with MacLaurin series for sin(x)= x-x^3/3! when x->0=( (x-x^3/3!)^2-x^2)/(x^2(x-x^3/3!)^2)+1=(x^2 -2x^4/3! +x^6/36 -x^2)/(x^2 (x(1-x^2/3!))^2) +1=( -x^4/3+x^6/36)/(x^2*x^2(1-x^2/3!)^2) +1=(x^4 (-1/3 +x^2/36))/(x^4 (1-x^2/6)^2) +1=(-1/3 +x^2/36)/(1-x^2/6)^2 +1And when x->0 this (-1/3 +x^2/36)/(1-x^2/6)^2 -> -1/3So Lim x->0 of (1/x^2)-(cotx)^2= -1/3+1=2/3Thanks.. though we're technically not supposed to know the MacLaurin or Taylor series right now
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